It’s a term that comes up a lot in certain theological discussion, yet despite never being directly mentioned in the Bible there is quite a bit of debate over free will. Now I’ve heard some people who say they believe such a thing exists and I’ve heard others insist it is un-biblical and in contradiction with the sovereignty of God. Honestly, I’ve never really put that much thought or care into the matter, but recently the matter has struck interest in me.
If there is one thing I’ve learned about logic and such it is this: The answers are always simple, however, the explanations are never.
It is from this presumption I begin my analysis. So the first question I must ask is this: What is free will? From my understanding, for something to be free it must be what it is without outside force. Simply, it is what it is because it is. If something is free, it is objectively that. Secondly, a will is a desire or want. So under that logic free will is an objective desire without a compromising influence.
Now, how to prove or disprove this: Is “free will” (as we have coined the term) evidenced in the Bible?
When I think of freedom, I automatically contrast it with the opposite - slavery. Since the Bible does not directly state anything about free will, I must base my observations on what it does - slavery.
Throughout much of New Testament the authors portray a life that is without Christ is one that is enslaved to sin. Take 2 Peter 2:17 for example when it talks about some people as, “slaves to depravity.” Galatians 3:23 continues with this theme as it portrays those without faith as “slaves to the law,” and we see in 1 Corinthians 15:56 that “the strength of sin is the law.” Thus we can conclude that until Jesus comes and sets us free and we have faith, there is no free will.
So what about after we’re saved? Have we then acquired this “free will”? We can look no further than Romans 6:18 where it states, “you have been set free from sin and have become slaves to righteousness.” So what is this? After Jesus saves us we dispose of one kind of bondage for another? And if I’m a slave to righteousness, than why do I still sin?
An argument against free will seems to make sense under the selected Biblical passages, but it doesn’t fit well under logic. In these situations it’s easy to pull the Isaiah 55:8 and Isaiah 29:14 cards and call it a day, but that’d be quite ignorant.
Each day I choose what clothes I wear, I choose what food I eat, and I choose what people I talk to. I am 100% responsible for those choices and and I choose to do them for whatever reasons I can come up with. Now all this sounds like “free will” to me, but according to scripture that’s not true. How do I justify these two? Perhaps, a better definition is in order…
Imagine you walk into a restaurant, and the sign at the front directs you to seat yourself. You find a table and your waitress gives you the menu. You ponder and choose your food and drink choices, and at the end of the meal you leave a tip and go home.
Notice how many decisions you made in the previous example; now notice what you didn’t choose:
You didn’t choose the layout of the restaurant. You didn’t choose your waitress. You didn’t choose what food and drinks would appear on the menu, and while you did choose how big of a tip you left, you didn’t choose that leaving a tip is a cultural norm and an expected part payment. Do you see where I’m going with this?
This world we live in, the parents we have, the passions that burn inside us; we chose none of these. What we did choose is how we react and relate to them. We didn’t choose the things that influence us (for the most part), we solely chose how we dealt with them. This is what I’m getting at:
We are dealt many options as human beings, and they’re either from the hand of God or from the hand of the devil. We don’t have a say in what these options are, but we do get a choice to pick one of them. We don’t pick the cards were dealt, but we do choose how we play them.
I think the term “free will” is misleading. I think a more appropriate term would be “influenced wills with responsibility.”
I applaud you if you’ve read through this entire post. Please leave a comment and let me now what you think. Is my logic off? Am I totally over-thinking all of this? Your feedback is appreciated, thanks!